I need a bit of help with a discussion that’s taking place on another forum. We’re discussing Mary, and I brought up the fact that she was saved by being prevented from falling into sin. I got the following response:
Well, the obedient angels haven’t fallen at all either. Nobody speaks of them as being saved.
How should I respond? I have a few thoughts in mind:
- I suppose we could speak of the obedient angels as having been saved
- The reference in Romans to “all have sinned” in Romans 3:23 refers to humans, not angels
- The fact that nobody refers to the obedient angels in this manner does not detract from the manner in which Our Lord saved Mary
Thanks in advance,