this question coming from another thread on sin and salvation
Robert Sock asked the very interesting and important question; which is still among our community without definitive answer (in the title; post 38 of the cited thread).
I argued that an abortion by an atheist may be in some cases a venial sin, even if it is a mortal sin per se. This because, if the atheist has an abortion based on the argument that anyway the foetus isn’t a human being, then her knowledge of what she is actuallly doing isn’t full.
"CCC 1859 Mortal sin requires full knowledge and complete consent. It presupposes knowledge of the sinful character of the act, of its opposition to God’s law. It also implies a consent sufficiently deliberate to be a personal choice. Feigned ignorance and hardness of heart133 do not diminish, but rather increase, the voluntary character of a sin.
OUr culture lives on ignorance of many of God’s commands on morals, not just the rejection of them. Many don’t know and/or by rejecting it, they never tried to know. It remains that they don’t know.
It would be different if a Catholic was to do such a thing. This would be mortal."
Still other members, based on natural law say it is a mortal sin anyway.
I then continued by saying
The moral law says it is wrong to kil. Atheists recognize that.
Mortal sin is when one has full knowledge of the immorality of a thing. BUt since the atheis may think he isn’t killing a baby, but taking out a lump of cellls, he isn’t knowing that he is killing someone. In this case the objective mortal sin becomes an actual venial sin because the atheist believes he is doing the right thing. He wouldn’t do the wrong thing. He wouldn’t kill. But for the athiest, this is not killing. He can’t know it is killing if he doesn’t see it the other way around.
What are your thoughts? This is important to many here I think.