Multiple times Jesus referred to himself as “Son of Man”, i.e., Matthew 12:40, Matthew 25:31, Matthew 26:24, Luke 5:24, Mark 8:31, etc.) Why we He refer to his Father as “Man” if there weren’t some human element - now or previously - to God the Father?
Also, consider this verse:
John 10:18 Jesus answered him, Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.
In the verse, “no one” can clearly be substituted with “no man or woman”. The exact same meaning is conveyed by stating “no man or woman is good but God alone”.
Some English Bible translations prior to the KJV actually rendered this verse to say “no man is good but God alone”. Again, Jesus is referring to his Father as “Man”.
This portion of your question is answered in John 5:19: Jesus answered and said to them, “Amen, amen, I say to you, a son cannot do anything on his own, but only what he sees his father doing; for what he does, his son will do also.
LDS don’t claim to know how spirits are procreated by God. If you have an authoritative LDS quote that contradicts this, please share it. The type of rhetoric you are using here is simply intended to shock, but not enlighten.
If Jesus has always been God, why was He designated or assigned at one point to become the Son of God per Romans 1:4?
Romans 1:4 but established as Son of God in power according to the spirit of holiness through resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord
establish - to bring into existence
What levels of Heaven do you believe in? Paul wrote of the third Heaven. There must be a first and second also.
Do you believe Romans 8:17 that you can become a joint-heir with Christ? Doesn’t that mean receiving the same power and glory Christ already inherited?
More to follow…