I am having some problems and I will appreciate an answer, please.
In Unum Sanctum, the Pope of the time said that if the Greeks claimed to not be subject to him, then they are not part of Jesus’ flock, ie, “not saved”. Relations with the Greek Orthodox have thawed since then a bit and today the Church doesn’t teach that they are unsaved. Even their Sacraments are valid.
This contradiction makes me question the Church on this issue. If I can question the Church on that issue, and if the Church could be wrong, then I question infallibility in general.