Domine, non sum disgnus

Why is it that women also use dignus when in Latin the correct form would be digna for a female?
Why do women actually use the male form of the adjective?

Because we’re specifically reciting the words of the Centurion in the Gospels, who was a man.

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Up to a point, @Fauken. There’s an adaptation in the second half. “… But speak the word only, and my servant shall be healed,” sed dic verbo, et sanabitur puer meus (Matt 8:8, Luke 7:7).

That distinction is lost when the line is recited in English.

D

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probably also because congregation says it at the same time, so it doesn’t get confusing… or I mean, that was mainly my reasoning for those words in my language.

True, but not in Latin and many other languages (and therefore not at Tridentine Mass ever).

The male usage takes precedence and incorporates all people. See also the Creed in English, ‘who for us men…,’ this isn’t talking just about males but all mankind.

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Well, this won’t really work for all language.
In Swedish human is refered to as she.

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