The following statement was made recently in a thread and it seems to me that the viewpoint may be a skewed version of Catholic teaching. Am I wrong? Is this statement totally accurate?
“Abstaining has to be a mutual decision. If you insist on abstaining, but he does not and it leads him to masturbate then it is a problem for both of you. When we marry we give our spouse exclusive right to our bodies. If they justly ask for the marital embrace and we refuse for unjust reasons then we bear some culpability for any resulting sin. Even if he were not to commit a sin if you were to refuse, it is still problematic to refuse the marital embrace as it is one of the rights and duties of marriage. This can get tricky as far as what is “just” vs “unjust”, but you cannot chose perpetual continence unilaterally.”