Some protestants (I mean no disrespect) have been talking about how OT and revelations are being fulfilled by this strife in the middle east. Is revelations talking about anything going on now? I have not got into eschatology but it seems like it was all about Jesus and maybe has all been fulfilled. Is there any good church sources on eschatology?


Questions such as this have been asked here from time to time. Of course, the Church has doctrine related to death and judgement. But, as far as the “end times” go, as far as I have been able to tell (by reading through these other threads), the sum total of Church teaching is that one particular form of premilleninism is contrary to the Faith.

Various Catholic theologians (some of whom are well regarded) have written articles and books about it, considering the Catholic perspective, but this is not an official teaching.

Of course, we are in the end times now, and have been since the Crucifixion. The Church has never gotten any more precise than that.

I see. Yes I have heard and believed that. The early church was looking for a “return” or the Christ since his leaving. I have read concerning revelation though that the dragon was Herod. The “Woman in travail” was the Blessed Mother. Also the creatures in this text attributed to John are the gospels. Is that official? What do you mean by official? How official? I appreciate your input much. This is Catholic Apologetics for me and I can witness to others. Is Eschatology a Catholic term or protestant?


A Church proclamation is official worldwide if it is a deliberate teaching of a Pope, an Ecumenical Council, or an Office of the Vatican. There is a hierarchy - an Apostolic Constitution from a Pope, for example, is “more” official than a Papal Bull (it is viewed as a more solemn teaching).

The teaching on premilleninism that I mentioned was promulgated by a Vatican Office that I had not previously heard of, but it’s official because it came from the Vatican.

Regional proclamations are official for a certain territory if they are promulgated by a regional Council of Bishops (a mini-Ecumenical Council), a Congregation of Bishops (which is a standing Council), or the Bishop of a Diocese (or the Offices of any of these authorities).

Only a Pope or a General (Ecumenical) Council MAY teach infallibly (though they usually do not). Being official does not mean it is also infallible, so most official teaching has not been infallibly defined.

OK I see. Official doesn’t automatically make it infallible.

So was Vatican 2 or any part of it. Infallible? And infallible is where the Holy spirit steps in right and leads the church and protects it from error?

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