(Before I begin, I’d like to state that I did search the CAF but I didn’t find that the threads answered my specific question.)
With regard to the three conditions necessary for a sin to be considered mortal, the first two are easy to understand: 1) grave matter and 2) full knowledge. But the third, complete consent (CCC 1859), is a bit hazy for me. I know what it means to give complete consent—it simply means that you freely choose to commit the grave actions despite knowing it’s a grave offense to God.
But if the third condition is complete consent, what, therefore would be INcomplete consent? How can you incompletely give consent? Would someone please provide me with some answers? Let’s look at three scenarios:
- An alcoholic is at a corporate Christmas party and just can’t resist the drink offered to him. And then he just can’t stop;
- A Catholic couple know that fornication is wrong, and they’ve been good for several months. But then, one day, there was a terrible rainstorm, and they are trapped in their cars without umbrellas. It’s cold in the car…they start hugging, then kissing, etc etc, one thing leads to another—they were overcome by passion;
- A German solider during WWII is ordered by his superiors to lead prisoners into gas chambers. The soldier knows that if he doesn’t carry it out, he will die;
- A destitute woman in a poor country resorts to prostitution, seeing it as the only means to support her child. The CCC in 2355 says that in such a case “the imputability of the offense can be attenuated by destitution, blackmail, or social pressure.” But isn’t she acting freely?
- A woman is threatened by the mob to commit perjury, and so she does out of fear for her family.
These are just some of my own guesses as to what would constitute INcomplete consent. Are they good examples? If not, please provide examples of your own to clarify this. Thank you.