I was just reading Ezekiel 33:10-20, and this just struck me as being a great argument for priests’ forgiving sins and the Catholic view of salvation. In Ez., God tells him that he will remember the righteousness of a righteous man no more if he has sinned, and will forget the sins of a wicked man who repents. Would it be safe to argue to someone who is in a ‘once saved, always saved’ belief that this would essentially disprove that notion? Since Jeses came not to abolish the Law but fulfill it, would it also be good to argue that the authority he gave the Apostles in John 20 to forgive sins is the fulfillment of this OT passage, and thus the only way to truly KNOW your sins are forgiven?
Sorry if this is Apologetics 101 - I just made this connection, got really excited by it, and wanted to share (and validate that my line of thinking is sound).