Remember the biblical requirement to find a truth and thus establish doctrine is found “upon the mouth of two or three witnesses letting EVERY word be established.”
Sure. We have the Catholics and Orthodox in agreement. They were the only Churches that existed before the Protestants came along. So, that’s 100% of the witnesses, in favor.
Actually there are no other scriptures in the New Testament that says what Catholic scholars said about Matt. 1:28. There are no other voices or writers saying what they have concluded here. That should be a red flag to any serious bible student who believes the SUM of Thy word is Truth.
We don’t go by Scripture alone. But, you do. And you have no witness, anywhere, not in Scripture or out, that anyone taught Scripture alone until the Protestants invented it.
But let’s go a little further conceding the (above) point again. …Okay…then at conception she NEEDED grace because she was in a state of sin.
No. She was never in a state of sin. The gift prevented that.
How is this taught not only from Matthew’s point of view, but from all other biblical witnesses? Lets not forget the huge leap of thought between fullness of grace and sinless-ness. God alone needs no Grace, for God is sinless.
And God gave Mary a huge gift:
Luke 1:499 For he that is mighty hath done to me great things; and holy is his name.
When the Holy Spirit said through Paul, "For ALL have sinned and fall short "… Rom 3:23 did He mean almost all have sinned … all except Mary … ?
Yes. St. Paul concedes that not all have sinned.
Romans 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam’s transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
Why did Paul not seem to know anything about this so-called miracle given to Mary in Matt. 1:28?
Why is there absolutely no acknowledgment or agreement anywhere in scripture?
- Because the world was being introduced to Jesus.
- We could ask the same question about Sola Scriptura.
Why would Mary and her husband offer a sin offering according to Moses?..
To fulfill all righteousness.
Matthew 3:13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.
14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
Jesus did not need His sins washed away, did He?
Why did she cry out calling God her Savior if she was sinless?
Because God is her Saviour.
There is too much hyperbole here for any serious student of scripture.
There is no hyperbole. These are simple Teachings that simple and faithful Catholics accept without blinking an eye. You find them hard to believe because your tradition has rejected the Traditions of Jesus Christ.
Blessing to you,
And to you.