I don’t know what you mean by consciousness. Sure, the brain creates the body of our sensory experience, and it is true that our cognitive capacity involves physical processes. But to suggest that what ultimately receives the experience and responds with intentionality to it’s experience is only reducible to blind physical activity alone - as such that the two are identical in nature - is a materialistic assertion and is not self evident either to science or philosophy. It is merely a philosophical extrapolation that is begging the question rather than actually proving a logical consistency in the assertion.
Accept that there is no logical possibility of it being true, since an act of rational intention is the very antithesis of a physical object blindly moving to an end naturally as a result of blind deterministic or random forces.
If you say the word shoe because it was determined by the firing of synapses alone, then the effect isn’t really because of a rational intent. It is only because of blind physical activity resulting from processes that began 13.8 billion years ago.