Do the analysis of formal versus material cooperation yourself then?
I gave you the link.
You are strangely shy on doing so.
The husband is materially contracepting - no doubt about that at all.
And very likely proximately so.
It is even bordering on formal contracepting.
But it is contracepting.
No moral theologian priest will advise you otherwise.
So if the husband is forced to materially contracept due to circumstances outside of his control why do you maintain the same cannot happen in some cases of 2nd marriages re material adultery?