First of all - let me say that this is not my question. I am posting this here for a friend on another discussion board HERE.
Since it has been a week since he posted and received no replies...I hoped that an apologist or three from CAF might be able to help. - So - Here is the question he asked....
I've heard these terms used by Catholic apologists and sometimes by Protestants in describing the use of the Bible. In doing lots of web searches it looks like they may be referencing Aristotle's philosophy. However sometimes when trying to read the material there are some things that don't add up. So my question is, do they indeed reference this school of thought and if so can you give me a link to a good "For Dummies" site?