in john 1:14 it says that Jesus was “full of Grace” is the greek word used in this verse the same as in luke referring to Mary?
Sorry, I cannot read Greek; but I can still infer that the verse in question is different in sense from the phrase in Angel’s salutation to Mary. I can draw this conclusion by the help of the context in John’s prologue:
John 1:14. And the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us (and we saw his glory, the glory as it were of the only begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth.
Although the Evangelist uses the phrase “full of grace”, he later elaborates on its meaning in relation to everyone’s salvation:
John 1:16. And of his fullness we all have received: and grace for grace.
Finally, the Evangelist makes a comparison between Moses & Jesus on the basis of salvation through the use of the words “grace & truth” in verse 14:
John 1:17. For the law was given by Moses: grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
Peace to you,
No, the Greek words are not the same - but both are based on the root word for “grace”.
The Greek in Luke 1:28 is “kecharitomene” (a single word) and is used by the angel instead of her name (Mary). I know this has been discussed one of the forums before. Try a forum search on kecharitomene - or you can do a google search on the word.
The Greek in John 1:14 uses two words - one for “full” and one for “grace”.