Before I ask the question, I’ll make some things clear:
I believe homosexual activity is a grave sin against God and nature. There is nothing more depraved that two men could do to each others’ bodies.
I understand and accept that the use of artificial contraception (between persons of the opposite sex, married or not) is intrinsically evil. IMO, the use of ABC is the root cause of untold suffering and death and 90% of the problems we see in our society today.
I do not think that condoms are a solution to the spread of HIV or other STDs. They: 1. Are not 100% effective and 2. provide a false sense of security and encourage more sexual activity and promiscuity, resulting in - on the contrary - the spread of STDs like HIV.
Having said all that, why is it the teaching of the Church that condom use by gay men, having what they call “sex”, is not allowed? ABC is not allowed when a man and a woman have sex because, to put it simply, it goes against the designs of God and nature for sexual relations between a husband and a wife in artificially separating the two purposes of sex: procreation and the unification of the persons. Properly speaking, two persons of the same sex cannot have sexual intercourse. They can engage in depraved genital sexual activity but what two men or two women do is not sexual intercourse. There is no possibility of the generation of life, so there is no procreative aspect to this behavior to frustrate, and the unitive aspect is…well, let’s just say, false.
So why is condom use morally illicit by two gay men? (not that even 100% consistent and perfect use (which nobody does anyway plus there is the breakage factor) would protect them from STDs over time).