Please consider the following and then my question:
In 1 Samuel 15:3, God orders:
Now therefore go, and smite Amalec, and utterly destroy all that he hath: spare him not, nor covet any thing that is his: but slay both man and woman, child and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ***.
No one does he command to act unjustly,
to none does he give license to sin.
God alone is the Lord of life from its beginning until its end: no one can under any circumstance claim for himself the right directly to destroy an innocent human being." CCC 2258
“Every act of war directed to the indiscriminate destruction of whole cities or vast areas with their inhabitants is a crime against God and man, which merits firm and unequivocal condemnation.” CCC 2314
Knowing that God is the author of both the natural law, which is unchanging (CCC 1956) and which says never to take innocent human life, how can he order human beings (the Israelites) to be agents in something which is contrary to the moral law he put in their hearts…namely the killing of innocent children? Clearly if anyone claimed such a command came from God today we would say it would be contrary to God’s goodness to order it. How can we explain this OT command then, since its the same God?
True, God can take innocent life by his own ways through circumstances, but can how can he directly order someone to commit abortion, or genocide, or the like…acts dubbed as malum in se.
Any help is greatly appreciated