God likes sinful people


#1

This just in from my Baptist source:
Romans 3:23 declares that Mary must have been a sinner.
Also, God worked through huge numbers of sinful people, therefore, He still would have worked through Mary in spite of her sinfulness. Moreover, it would have been a break from the tradition of using sinful people to have made her sinless.
Help?


#2

Romans 3:23 obviously isn’t referring to everyone:rolleyes: (Jesus, ahem, ahem). Romans 3:23 isn’t a statement of fact, it’s an admonishment pointed toward a particularly self-righeous Jewish converts in the community who thought themselves somehow better than the Gentile converts because they were part of the Jewish tradition (covenant of Abraham). All Scripture must be read in context!!!

And what about all those people who are “righteous”? Doesn’t God use them, too?

Irregardless, Mary was the vessel of Jesus, carrying God Himself within her for nine months. If God wanted to, He surely could have preserved her from all sin. Or is your friend suggesting God isn’t all-powerful???

I think this was on another thread recently, I’ll try to dig it up…


#3

He’s Protestant…no one is righteous.
His point is that God wouldn’t have wanted to, seein’ as how He used such sinful people before.


#4

But doesn’t the Bible call Joseph a “righteous man”?:eek:Well, apparantly only Jews can be righteous…:rolleyes:

There is nothing that points toward a reason why Mary should not be sinless. God could certainly do it if He wanted to.

And like I said, that verse must be read in context…


#5

The difference in perspective here is in the notion that God “used” Mary like some sort of surrogate mother or womb-for-hire. That is a distinctly Protestant idea. God invited Mary to play a unique role in salvation and he prepared her for that role. She is no mere vessel; she is the *mother *of the Savior. Mary’s status does not admit of analogy or comparison to anyone else.

JSA


#6

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