Friends & Brethren :)
My own transliteration has it:
In Luke 1:28, the Blessed Virgin Mary is referred to as κεχαριτωμένη (ke*charitoméne)
In John 1:14, the incarnate Logos is referred to as πλήρης χάριτος (pléres **chárito*s)
The two different terms are usually translated as "Full of Grace". Why is this?
Would it be better to translate the Lord's "full of grace" as "the fullness of grace", since He - being God - is "Grace Itself"? Is the Virgin's "full of grace" is more like "filled with grace (by God)"?
I hope this isn't some sort of hapax legomenon, and that the Septuagint has a similar term somewhere, to compare to these...