Attention, Greek Grammar enthusiasts!
I’ve been re-reading verses that are cited to prove the Divinity of Our Lord and naturally came across Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1. I gather that they are translated differently, one way resulting in a clear reference to Christ as God, and one separating Him from that connection.
The matter appears to involve “Granville Sharp’s rule”, but I am not an expert or learned at all in Greek. Could someone who knows Greek grammar please explain how these verses are to be rendered?