You made some outstanding points in your thread entitled “Why I rejected Sola Scriptura”. I borrowed some of your points and was challenged on the following one …
- … many people in ancient times were illiterate, so the only way for them to hear the Gospel was to go to church and hear it preached. BTW, while I’m at it, I’d like to explode the Protestant myth that “the Catholic Church kept the Bible in Latin so ordinary people couldn’t read it.” As I said, the ordinary people were largely illiterate to begin with. Secondly, schools of the Middle Ages (and for a few centuries thereafter) taught Latin as part of their curriculum, so anyone who could read could read Latin. Also, numerous vernacular translations of the Bible were in existence long before Luther & Co. came along …*
This is wholly disingenuous. The Council of Toulouse, 1229, Canon 14 states: “We prohibit the permission of the books of the Old and New Testament to laymen, except perhaps they might desire to have the Psalter, or some Breviary for the divine service, or the Hours of the blessed Virgin Mary, for devotion; expressly forbidding their having the other parts of the Bible translated into the vulgar tongue”
If “anyone who could read could read latin” why would this Canon have been conceived in the first place?
Furthermore, in 1564, Pope Pius IV stated, “Since experience teaches that, if the reading of the Holy Bible in the vernacular is permitted generally without discrimination, more damage than advantage will result because of the boldness of men, the judgment of bishops and inquisitors is to serve as guide in this regard. Bishops and inquisitors may, in accord with the counsel of the local priest and confessor, allow Catholic translations of the Bible to be read by those of whom they realize that such reading will not lead to the detriment but to the increase of faith and piety. The permission is to be given in writing. Whoever reads or has such a translation in his possession without this permission cannot be absolved from his sins until he has turned in these Bibles…”
Thirdly, a number of Bible translations were included in the Index of Forbidden Books (Index Librorum Prohibitorum), first published in 1559
It is a well established historical fact that the RCC burnt Bibles so that the laity could not read them.
RNRobert, or anyone … any replies to these counter-points?