Would it be possible, under the proposed mandate, for an employer to a) pass through 100% of the cost of health insurance to its employees, while still purchasing the group policy so as to take advantage of group rates, and b) concomitantly raise all employees salaries by the amount that the employer was formerly paying for health insurance paid for by the employer? Would the ta code take that into account, i.e., deduct to employee for health insurance premium?
I am asking because I think that if the employees paid all the freight, there would not be the same objection to paying for contraception - - an employee who didn’t want it wouldn’t use it. Is this just shifting the objection from the employer to the employee?
It seems to me that one concern about new law is that employers who are not required to have coverage (IIRC, if employer has under 50 employees?) will just drop coverage altogether, with no pay raise to employees for (national?) health insurance premiums.