I have a protestant friend, we have discussions regularly on many subjects. And this week, we were basically debating the use of inclusive language, and whether it should be used when translating the Bible. To sum it up we agreed that it shouldn’t nescessarily be changed just like a 18th century novel would not be changed but read in context. Where we disagree was regarding the “gender” of God and the Holy Spirit. My thoughts were that throughout the Bible God is given traits of a patriarchal figure, and is referred to as the Father etc. I basically said that Jesus when teaching, and other Biblical writers had a choice between using Father or Mother and that Father was chosen because it fits God’s characteristics better. He sees it more that Jesus had to choose one or the other (He, She) because “it” would be inappropriate,(Which I partly agree with, but I still feel that while naturally God has characteristics of a nurturer associated as a female characteristic, I feel that the masculine description is more accurate. )
Anyway, firstly he claims that in certain wirtings the Holy Spirit is female, is their anything to back this up? Secondly, getting back to the debate over God the Father, I was just wondering, reading other posts it says in Latin their are pronouns that are considered neutral and inoffensive, is it the same case for the original languages of the Gospel? As well as Ariamic which Christ spoke? If this is the case I feel it would support my argument because it would no longer be about offending but rather choosing a better descriptive word.
Hope that made sense.
Please if you have any other tips, knowledge or advice on the subject please post it as any help would be appreciated.
Thanks in advance,