Historically correct?


It depends what was taught in those synagogue schools. Without looking at the syllabus, my assumption would be that “Hebrew” and “Torah” was probably at the top of the required reading/learning list not Socrates or Homer. While Paul was probably very well rounded on many subjects, a bunch of fishermen and carpenters from a town in Galilee probably had a very limited education.


Throwing out an entire branch of scholarship because it doesn’t provide the answer you like seems a wee bit prejudicial.


Let me ask this simple question:

Suppose you promise that you will give something to me, or perform an act when I ask you. And then you don’t do it. When I remind you of your promise, and point out that you did not fulfill that promise… is that “treating you as a vending machine”? You were under no obligation to make that promise. No one would have expected you to promise anything. So why the “vending machine” accusation?

Promising something creates an obligation, don’t you agree?


what would you expect to happen? What would need to happen to restore your faith?


Lots of things could have helped, but I leave the solution to Jesus… after all he is supposed to be God, not I. He would know what is best. But the “deafening silence” definitely cannot help.


you say there is 'deafing silence" That means you already know what is supposed to happen. Isn’t that correct? How do you know that He has made an overture but you reject it because it didn’t fit your criteria?

It reminds me of that OT story of God wasn’t in the storm but in the whisper. Could it be you are looking for a storm and missing the whisper?


Among Jewish males it was closer to 100%


They learned to read Hebrew and Aramaic at least. Very possibly some greek


From my education on the topic, that’s grossly incorrect. Especially if literacy is defined as the ability to comprehensively read it.

Any source anywhere attesting 100% literacy?


i in the world of almost universal illiteracy back 2,000 years, the Jewish religious leadership — the rabbis and scholars in the academies in Judea and Galilee — required each Jewish individual, child or adult, rich or poor, farmer or merchant, to learn to read and study the Torah.n the world of almost universal illiteracy back 2,000 years, the Jewish religious leadership — the rabbis and scholars in the academies in Judea and Galilee — required each Jewish individual, child or adult, rich or poor, farmer or merchant, to learn to read and study the Torah.

From. https://www.pbs.org/newshour/economy/jewish-literacy-as-the-road-to

I do not have my copies in front if me, but the link I posted echos what I read in with Warren Carroll’s History of Christendom, volume 1, and Paul Johnson’s History of Judaism.

All Jewish males went to school. They were required to. I always laugh when I see one of those home schooling bumper stickers that says “Jesus was home-schooled”, because he most certainly wasn’t, Ironic that parents who home school, are the teaches, get this wrong.

We don’t realize just how unique the Jewish religion and society was in the ancient world. One if the reasons there was such a large dispora is because it attracted a lot if converts wherever Jews settled.


No, it is not correct. But one thing is certain. Silence does not cut it. And if that “overture” is not recognized as such, it is not helpful. Just think about it. God - being omniscient - would know exactly what kind of signal would be helpful for me. If he did not send that kind of signal, he was not helpful.


Rollston cautions, however, against assuming that the general population of Judah could read and write. “Literacy in ancient Israel and Judah was probably 15 or 20 percent of the population, at most,” he says.

Christopher Rollston, an expert on ancient Semitic languages and literature at George Washington University,

Now, I’m certain you’re right about most Jewish boys receiving some sort of religious formation. I just doubt that it led to widespread literacy of the magnitude where your average Jewish boy could actually read the Tanakh.


The link I posted is from authors who studied precisely this question. BTW, if literacy is defined as reading and writing, you would be correct. They were considered two separate skills in the ancient world. Writing was not aught to all, reading most certainly was.


I didnt hear about any chart


Accepting an anachronistic conclusion, just because folks with degrees support it, seems a wee bit myopic. :wink:


I tend to share your thoughts, but the Tanakh exists because enough people were able to read and write. Faith in God is not dependant on literacy skills.


History is a written report of past events. Some books were transmitted orally and written later and then redacted. For example the Torah, per the documentary hypothesis, is an amalgam of several types of authors: Elohist (9th cen. BCE), Jahwist (7th cen. BCE), Deuteronomist (7th/6th cen. BCE), Priestly (6th/5th cen. BCE), and redactor.


So, what is the conclusion? Is there no way to prove that any specific part of the Bible is historically, factually correct? As someone quoted above: “Everything in the Bible is true and SOME OF IT actually happened”! Which are the “some of it”?


How would you go about proving it?

I guess my question is really “what’s your standard for sufficient proof?” I mean, when we’re talking about antiquity, the bar for ‘proof’ is much lower than it might be for an event today, don’t you think? After all, it was pretty hard to find good enough cell reception back then to hope that someone Live Stream’ed the ‘Burning Bush’, right?

Didn’t that already get answered? The NT; narrative books of the OT (that is, those that aren’t of other genres (e.g., ‘poetry’, ‘apocalyptic’, ‘wisdom literature’ etc)) which are identified as the “historical books”.


The Bible is a mix of genera including figurative and literal. Not all events are recorded and some are fictional. I think it is expressing a testimony. It expresses truth in teaching.

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