How are Jesus's miracles different from other prophets?

If we know that Jesus’s miracles are signs of his divinity then how are they different from the miracles performed by other prophets like Moses or any other that did supernatural wonders?

Didn’t God work through the prophets? And so how did or didn’t God work through Jesus?

No person, besides Jesus, has ever worked a miracle through his own authority.

Elisha in 2 Kings prayed to the Lord before raising the dead. In John 11 Jesus rasied Lazarus and before doing so Spoke to God. Comparing the two seem that God would work through both and thus the authority of it was still God from Above. How are we to discern Jesus authority from it versus the prophets?

Please help!

Wrote this a while back while debating with a friend (I’ll edit it slightly to make sure it’s relevant)

As a third point, there’s sovereignty over nature, which is explicable when you consider Jesus, as God, is above nature. The first instance that comes to mind is the calming of the storm (Mark 4:37-39) It is at this point important to distinguish between God acting, and God acting through. Now in the Old Testament miracles, God either commands that something be done (Moses throwing down his staff to become a snake, parting the dead sea, striking the rock to produce water…etc), God relays that something will be done (Abraham and Sarah having a son), or someone prays for God to do something (see Elisha, below), but when Jesus commands nature, He does so with His own authority. He wakes up, and immediately Himself tells the winds to calm down. Not only that, but He even has authority over the supernatural, casting out demons. (Luke 4:35-36). There’s no indicator of praying or being told to do something, He simply does it. By now I feel I’ll probably be told ‘but maybe God just gave Him the power to do these things’, to which my first thought is that God doesn’t just give people sovereignty over nature because we’re a part of nature, but I did look to see if God had given anyone else some kind of authority over nature, and it seems Elisha is probably the best case of that - sometimes called a wonder-worker, people specifically came to him seeking healing. But we still see the ‘God acting through’ rather than the ‘God acting’. For instance he raises two people back to life, and prays in both. (2 Kings 4:32 + 1 Kings 17:21).

Of course, there are times when Jesus prays too, but enough striking instances of Him using His own authority too. In fact, Matthew 9:6-8 (the paralyzed man) is about as blatant a demonstration of authority as you can get. Or Mt 8:2-3 as well:

and there was a leper who came to him and knelt before him, saying, “Lord, if you choose, you can make me clean.” He stretched out his hand and touched him, saying, “I do choose. Be made clean!” Immediately his leprosy was cleansed.

Again, Jesus’ authority is clearly emphasised.
Looking down at topic review I see you’ve already brought up Elisha and Jesus praying, I hope this helps with your question. God bless. :slight_smile:

From the Summa (III, Q. 43, art. 4):

… He taught that He was God; … unless this were true it would not be confirmed by miracles worked by Divine power. …]

And to the objection “the miracles which Christ worked have been done by others also”:

To this Augustine answers thus: “We own that the prophets did as much . . . But even Moses himself and the other prophets made Christ the Lord the object of their prophecy, and gave Him great glory . . . He, therefore, chose to do similar things to avoid the inconsistency of failing to do what He had done through others. Yet still He was bound to do something which no other had done: to be born of a virgin, to rise from the dead, and to ascend into heaven. If anyone deem this a slight thing for God to do, I know not what more he can expect…]”

As to the miracles worked by others … Augustine says: “None of the works of Christ seem to be greater than the raising of the dead: which thing we know the ancient prophets also did . . . Yet Christ did some works ‘which no other man hath done.’ But we are told in answer that others did works which He did not, and which none other did . . . But to heal with so great a power so many defects and ailments and grievances of mortal men, this we read concerning none soever of the men of old. To say nothing of those, each of whom by His bidding, as they came in His way, He made whole . . . Mark saith (6:56): ‘Whithersoever He entered, into towns or into villages or into cities, they laid the sick in the streets, and besought Him that they might touch but the hem of His garment: and as many as touched Him were made whole.’ These things none other did in them; for when He saith ‘In them,’ it is not to be understood to mean ‘Among them,’ or ‘In their presence,’ but wholly ‘In them,’ because He healed them . . . Therefore whatever works He did in them are works that none ever did; since if ever any other man did any one of them, by His doing he did it; whereas these works He did, not by their doing, but by Himself.”

you all are great thank you SOOO much for the feedback!!

This has helped me in my studies!! Thank you! and God bless and keep you all!! :smiley:


Also remember that He forgave sins, a power otherwise attributed to God. The Pharisees rebuked him on this because only God has the authority to forgive sins, but Christ explicitly said that the Son of Man has the power to forgive sins, and then performed a healing miracle to emphasize this point, which means His miracles were an expression of his Divinity, not just miracles performed by God through Him. This is a small point compared to the excellent examples already stated, but I figured it fit nicely with the above quote from the Summa.

I don’t see how they are even close. Can you clarify why you think they would even be similar?

The questioning is to assert the distinction that would clarify how one being doing miracles is different form another doing miracles. The face value is one splits the sea by the power of God, another raises the dead by the power of God plus heals someone by the power of God. Then Jesus performs miracles and some are very similar to ones performed by other prophets.
I’m not a doubter of Jesus as our Messiah; I strongly adhere to my Catholic faith (no one can grow in knowledge or understanding of any truth without questioning). But when logic dictates the course of reasoning those who try to reason with Jesus’s divinity will try to understand where is His works differ and why. If no other prophet had ever performed any miracle then it would be extremely easier to discern the amazing abilities Jesus has as divine and it would be an easier argument that He is the Son of God and not just a messenger or prophet.

Again, I don’t see the issue. Are you somehow conflating things done by Jesus under His own power and those things He told the Apostles to do and they did them by the power given to them by Jesus?

Ok Ignatius; I don’t think we are understanding each other on the question first asked…

Please allow me to rewind and ask you this… the classic question from non-believers “if Jesus is God then why did he pray to God; is He praying to himself?”

The Catechism of The Catholic Church addresses this kind of issue, complete with scriptural references. When someone has questions about The Faith I would tell them to get a copy of The Catechism, if they still have any questions, we can discuss it. If they refuse to read it, they don’t really want to find The Truth.

BTW, I should note the questions you ask are typical errors of the Jehovah’s Witness.

Or Muslims, for that matter, since the OP mentioned ‘prophet’.

Actually I never saw a problem with that bit about ‘praying to Himself’, as long as you recognise the Trinity as being three distinct persons. The Father and the Son doubtless had a loving relationship in heaven, why should that cease while Jesus is on earth?

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