This is a question that has puzzled me for a while now. This link catholic.com/blog/tim-staples/do-muslims-worship-the-same-god-catholics-do
is an article written by Tim Staples citing the Catechism’s declaration that Muslims worship the same God as Catholics. Now I’m not disputing this specific point, but I’m just puzzled as to how the Church presumes to make definitive statements about OTHER religions such as Islam in this example.
I just don’t see how this falls under the faith and morals criteria of infallibility when it comes to Church doctrines considering it is a declaration about a *different *religion is it not?
I’m sure there are Muslims out there who will insist that they do not worship the same God as Christians mistakenly thinking that God as trinity is some form of polytheism which they reject. So why and on what basis does the Church presume to speak for Muslims (many of whom might disagree with the Church’s stance) about their own religion?
I just don’t understand how the Church can make binding declarations or something of that sort about other religions in something as central as the catechism.
Can someone shed some light on this/clear up any confusion?