So, I’ve been reading, listening to, and watching many tracts that are promoted by Protestants to assert that the Lord’s Supper is symbolic. I’ve watched many Catholic apologetics, and probably memorized all of them. But one major doubt remains:
Jesus said we are truly going to eat His Flesh and drink His Blood, but I don’t see anything that implies that the substance of the bread and wine changes into His Very Flesh. I know that the passover and eating of the lamb were truly prefigurements of this cleansing sacrifice, and that in order to be fully forgiven we have to eat the flesh of the lamb, but couldn’t it be symbolically eating and drinking? I’m not seeing any sign of the bread and wine literally changing into the Lord’s Flesh.
Also being in Matthew’s account of the Last Supper, Jesus then says about the chalice that He won’t drink “the fruit of the vine…” That just makes me wonder if even He has asserted that it was just wine?
I once spoke to somebody about this issue and I referenced 1 Corinthians 11, when Paul warns of eating and drinking Judgement to ourselves if we eat and drink unworthily, as signs that this was not a mere symbol because symbols cannot have someone killed, but he then proceeded to reference Nadab and Abihu in Leviticus 10:1-2, when they were killed for offering bad incense, pointing out that incense is symbolic, too, not literal…
But I look at the first letter to the Corinthians, in which Paul compares this celebration with the sacrifices of the Gentiles and those who continue to obey Moses’ commandments, using language that reflects that prophecy of Malachi, that being the “Table of the Lord” compared to the altars.