How does Malachi 1:11 foretell the Sacrifice of the Mass?


#1

Hi! I came across a Protestant tract that said that the Eucharist was only a “sacrifice of praise and thanksgiving” and not a propitiatory sacrifice, as affirmed by the Council of Trent. They argue against the Catholic interpretation of Malachi 1:11 by saying that the word “mincha” only refers to an unbloody sacrifice, a meal offering that was not propitiatory in nature. Here’s Malachi 1:11:

“From the rising of the sun to its setting,
my name is great among the nations;
Incense offerings are made to my name everywhere,
and a pure offering;
For my name is great among the nations,
says the LORD of hosts.”

Also, Protestants say that by “pure offering” is meant offerings which do not have defilements, i.e., animal sacrifices. So they say that since the word “mincha” is not propitiatory and that it does refer to actual sacrifices where there is a priest, victim, and altar, it cannot refer to the Catholic Mass. This is their basis for saying that the Eucharist is only a sacrifice of praise and thanksgiving, and not a propitiatory sacrifice that is the re-presentation of Christ’s sacrifice on Calvary.

What is the Catholic response to this?


#2

Jesus is not bloody when he offers himself to God, but rather Paul in I Cor. 11:26 says that we offer ourselves as a living sacrifice. Jesus died only once and offers himself now only in an unbloody manner in a living sacrifice.

Time to God means past, present, and future rolled into one. He sees everything as now and therefore the words of Jesus are true, “As often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s DEATH until he comes” I Cor. 11:26


#3

Hi! Thanks but that doesn’t answer my question though. The Protestant argument accepts that the Eucharist is an unbloody sacrifice. But they deny that it is propitiatory, and insist that it is only one of praise and thanksgiving. So they cite the word “mincha” in Malachi to prove this. So what is the Catholic response to this?


#4

I don’t see that the continuity of Jesus’ self-offering at the Last Supper and sacrifice on Friday can’t be propitiatory as well as praising and/or thanksgiving; and by extension, doing it in memory at Mass.

blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H4503&t=KJV


#5

MINCHA (Gift)If a person was so poor that he could not even afford a bird then he could bring Mincha offering (Mincha means gift). The Mincha offering was an offering of flour, about 5 lbs. The flour was placed in a special pan into which some oil had been poured. More oil was poured over the flour and mixed with a sweet spice. The pan was then handed to the cohen who brought the pan to the alter where it was measured out, three hands full, which was burnt on the alter. The flour was not allowed to rise, could not be sweetened and must be salted. The person offering this sacrifice eats none of his offering. The priests do eat the leftovers. It was taught that when the priests eat of this sacrifice, God forgave the sins of Israel.

pro·pi·ti·ate

prəˈpiSHēˌāt/ verb win or regain the favor of (a god, spirit, or person) by doing something that pleases them.

If forgiveness of sins by God is NOT considered propitious, pray tell what would be?


#6

In the Greek Septuagint, the version favored by the early Christians, the word used in Malachi 1:11 is thusia, the same word used in the New Testament, such as 1 Corinthians 10:18, to refer to such sacrifices as were offered on altars. It is not surprising that early Christians would see Malachi 1:11 as a prophecy of the Christian Eucharistic sacrifice offered on Christian altars.


#7

…“pure offering” is meant offerings which do not have defilements, i.e., animal sacrifices."

I take this to mean that all animals are defiled and therefore they cannot be a “pure offering”.

But this would nullify what was said in the Old Testament when Moses directed the people to take a lamb, which was unblemished and in perfect condition, and sprinkle it’s blood above their doors, and was to be eaten in a meal that night. So according to this there is such a thing as an unblemished, spotless lamb or animal.

John the Baptist calls Jesus the real Lamb of God, who indeed was unblemished and pure, to take away the sins of the world.

The Old Testament lamb is a figure of the New Testament which would spare the people death(eternal) as the Old Testament lamb spared the people death(first born). IN both cases, unblemished, sacrificed, and eaten for the purpose of propitiation, the means by which the people are to be spared death. In both cases it was the lamb’s blood … propitiation.

Since the Mass is the sacrifice of Jesus, who was spotless, brought forward in time to us making the Mass the same sacrifice now as it was then, making the Mass as sacrificially powerful as it was then, making the Mass as much a propitiation now as it was then…because in reality it is one and the same.

As far as scriptural quotes go, there are plenty to define the sacrifice of Jesus as propitiatory.

"…who in His blood has reconciled us with God made unto to us justice and sanctification and redemption. I Cor.1,30
“The slavery from which Christ purchased mankind throught his sacrificial death is the slavery of sin.” Tit 2,14
And Isaiah chapter 53.

And I wouldn’t think anyone would deny that Jesus was spotless and pure. So when Malachi says “Incense offerings are made to my name everywhere, and a pure offering;” it would mean that a pure offering would be made everywhere on earth which describes the Mass perfectly as Jesus is the pure victim.

Malachi is saying that incense offerings and also a pure offering, so I don’t see this as "incense offerings, which are pure offerings. Incense offerings is plural, in contrast to pure offering which is singular. So the conclusion is that the last offering does not refer to the first offerings, but rather both are separate and are pointed out.
The Mass describes this perfectly, namely, praise(incense) and propitiatory(pure victim).


#8

I’m not sure I exactly understand the argument, other than that it’s objective is to disprove Catholic practice. It seems to me the passage clearly says across the world an incense and pure offering will be made to God. Are these Protestants offering incense? If so then they would be unusual considering the whole world of Protestantism.

Likewise if these Protestants are offering the Eucharist, however they view it, to God then they are unusual in the whole world of Protestantism. It seems to me that if you are offering the Eucharist in any way to God then Jesus would be the most pure offering. What do they think they are offering?


#9

Lev 5:11 But if he be not able to bring two turtledoves, or two young pigeons, then*** he that sinned shall bring*** for his offering the tenth part of ***an ephah of fine flour for a sin ***offering; he shall put no oil upon it, neither shall he put any frankincense thereon: for it is a sin offering.

Lev 5:12 Then shall he bring it to the priest, and the priest shall take his handful of it, even a memorial thereof, and burn it on the altar, according to the offerings made by fire unto the LORD: it is a sin offering.

Lev 5:13 And *the priest shall make an atonement for him *as touching his sin that he hath sinned in one of these, and it shall be forgiven him: and the remnant shall be the priest’s, as a meat [minchâh] offering.

PROPITIATION:

[indent]1 : the act of propitiating, appeasing, or conciliating
2 : something that appeases or conciliates a deity : ATONEMENT; specifically : the self-sacrifice and death of Jesus Christ to appease divine justice and to effect reconciliation between God and man –Webster’s

[/indent]

Mike


#10

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