N[quote=“SalamKhan, post:29, topic:456528, full:true”]
Actually, Thomas Aquinas did believe that the Virign Mary was conceived in sin, he just didn’t believe she was born in original sin. There’s a difference.
I think you are reading into Aquinas what you wish he might have thought.
Here is what he actually wrote: (Summa Theologiae III:27:4):
“I answer that, God so prepares and endows those, whom He chooses for some particular office, that they are rendered capable of fulfilling it, according to 2 Cor. 3:6: ‘(Who) hath made us fit ministers of the New Testament.’ Now the Blessed Virgin was chosen by God to be His Mother. Therefore there can be no doubt that God, by His grace, made her worthy of that office, according to the words spoken to her by the angel (Lk. 1:30-31): ‘Thou hast found grace with God: behold thou shalt conceive,’ etc. But she would not have been worthy to be the Mother of God, if she had ever sinned. First, because the honor of the parents reflects on the child, according to Prov. 17:6: ‘The glory of children are their fathers’: and consequently, on the other hand, the Mother’s shame would have reflected on her Son. Secondly, because of the singular affinity between her and Christ, who took flesh from her: and it is written (2 Cor. 6:15 ) ‘What concord hath Christ with Belial?’ Thirdly, because of the singular manner in which the Son of God, who is the ‘Divine Wisdom’ (1 Cor. 1:24) dwelt in her, not only in her soul but in her womb. And it is written (Wis. 1:4) ‘Wisdom will not enter into a malicious soul, nor dwell in a body subject to sins.’
“We must therefore confess simply that the Blessed Virgin committed no actual sin, neither mortal nor venial; so that what is written is fulfilled: ‘Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is not a spot in thee,’ etc. “
I’m not sure what you mean by “the Virign Mary was conceived in sin,” but Aquinas seems to contradict you when he says “the honor of the parents reflects on the child,” so the honour of Mary’s parents would have been reflected in Mary.
According to you, then, whose sin was Mary “conceived in” if not her own and not in original sin?
If you mean Mary was born into a community and family where original sin was the condition of that community and family, well okay but neither do Aquinas nor the Church teach any different than that.
If you think Mary’s parents actually sinned when they conceived Mary, that would be a pretty outlandish claim and one that you would have to demonstrate. It contradicts what Aquinas says that “the honor of the parents reflects on the child,” so you couldn’t use Aquinas to support your position.
So what exactly is the “difference” that you are pointing to?