A family situation involving my sister, raised Catholic and converted to Fundamentalism 25 years ago, and her hurtful response to our mother who asks for her help has arisen. She married another Fundamentalist and both attended a Protestant Fundamentalist college in the Midwest. My sister refuses to help, among other reasons, because after discussing the matter with her husband, he refuses to let her travel. This has been the modus operandi in the family, that she defers all decisions to her husband, 9 years her junior. They will refer to that passage in New Testament (forgot verse; no Bible nearby) that states that wives should/shall be submissive to their husbands…
I would like to get the understanding of conservative Christians who use this verse as the correct relationship between husband and wife. My understanding is that they take it out of context, omitting later wording about the reciprocal, whereby husbands should be submissive to their wives reflecting the relationship between Christ and his Church (?).
Could you please explain the thinking behind their justification of their interpretation. Is it valid?