The Church teaches that Mary was saved “by a singular act of grace” in light of the infinite merits of her Son at the first moment of her conception. Cool. BUT, I don’t get something:
How was she saved before Christ suffered and died?
In anticipation of his Sacrifice (as in, his Sacrifice transcends time and therefore could have saved her)? This can’t be right because the Church teaches that NO ONE was saved prior to the Resurrection (hence the Harrowing of Hell). If the Church has long stood by the assertion that the righteous men and women of the past were not saved until Christ’s death and resurrection, then why (and how can it) teach that Mary was saved priorly?
Just a bit of confusion.
And hey, if anyone wants to fill me in on the whole Enoch/Elijah thing while we’re at it, go for it!