I am Protestant but working my way to become Catholic. My pastor of my church does not believe in the Perpetual Virginity of Mary. Here is his note to me and I have no idea how to answer it. Any help would be appreciated.
While studying for my sermon today, I came across Matthew 1:25. It reads as follows:
"But he[Josepeh] had no union with her [Mary] until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus."
Being the kind that notices details, I thought it was strange that the word ‘until’ was used here. Having checked my Greek source material books, the word ‘until’ in the Greek is heos. It is defined as " a conjunction, preposition, and adverb of continuance until (for time and place). Another dictionary defines it’s use in this particular instance as “until or unto, marking a terminus and spoken both of time and place… until what time, until when…” With out citing all the sources but with no intention to deceive, the writer of the verse is clearly making a statement that Mary’s viginity went until after the birth of her son, at which time it is clearly implied that Joseph did have union with her. I am sure there was the customary wait of time for purification of blood after the birth of the child which Luke says was 8 days. This one little word seems to dispell what so many may have always wished to believe about Mary, that which to me seems absolutely unlikely. That Mary stayed a virgin here whole life. This one little word seems to show that after the birth of Christ she had a normal sexual relationship with her husband, having a number of other children. The text could have easily emphasized her continued virginity by simply leaving out the work ‘until’ and supplying another word like ‘and’. Another great Catholic tradition bites the dust.
Like I said, I need help with this one!!