I wonder?

If you were asked:

WHY DID JESUS COME?

What would be your responce?

“To die for our sins” is the first thing that comes to mind for me.

I’ve never bought into the Scotist argument that says we can know that the Incarnation would have happened even without sin.

To seek and save what was lost (cf. Luke 19:10)

Love

To teach us how to live, to show us God is real, and prove to us that God loves us.

To do the will of the Father.

=Heliotropium;11165689]To do the will of the Father.

OK:D

Which is what:shrug:

Jesus came to do the will of his father and through his perfect sacrifice on the cross when he said “it is finished”…we have been reconciled to God through his blood

To offer Himself as a sacrifice for our sins, and to save us from evil.

“For this is the will of my Father, that every one that beholdeth the Son, and believeth on him, should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”–John 6:40

=Heliotropium;11165951]To offer Himself as a sacrifice for our sins, and to save us from evil.

“For this is the will of my Father, that every one that beholdeth the Son, and believeth on him, should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”–John 6:40

OK:)

I agree with th first; BUT what does it mean to “save US from EVIL?” Evil certainly does exist

Save us from the spirit of the world which promotes a life that separates us from God.

For us men and for our salvation, he came down from heaven.

We say it whenever we recite the Nicene Creed. Jesus came to reveal to us, though his own person, God’s mercy to sinners.

=Alindawyl;11168698]For us men and for our salvation, he came down from heaven.

We say it whenever we recite the Nicene Creed. Jesus came to reveal to us, though his own person, God’s mercy to sinners.

Exactly where?

And WHAT does it actually mean?

To offer reparation for Original Sin .

To show us how much we are loved. It’s an amazing love.

The only Person Who could bridge the tremendous gap between the status of God the Creator and the Original Sin status of Adam, in whom is all humanity as one body of one man, is Jesus Christ, True God and True Man.

To bring light into a world that wasn’t/isn’t even sure that it had fallen into darkness. To show us how lost we are, and how real and awful sin is, that it negates all hope by denying God, a point made strikingly clear by the fact that sinful man would almost cavalierly execute the most beautiful and innocent Reality in the universe. But the possibility of our being convicted of sin (a conviction we’re normally, innately, foolishly averse to) is simultaneously made palatable by the fact that His death was for that very sin-He was forgiving us for the very sin that wanted/wants Him dead, demonstrating His unconditional love for man in spite of our rebellion against and enmity towards Him. Sin made the Atonement necessary; God’s love compelled Him to make it happen.

In the absence of a clear statement of the object of your question, I can only guess what you are referring to here. The most obvious guess is that you mean to ask exactly where in the Nicene Creed we say what I posted. But because you describe yourself as an informed, practicing Roman Catholic, that’s not possible. An informed, practicing Roman Catholic is familiar with the Nicene Creed if for no other reason than he says it at Mass every week. He may not have it memorized, but he will certainly recognize it when he sees part of it written down. Therefore the object of your question must be something else. Please state it clearly so that I can answer your question.

Again, in the absence of a clear statement of the object of your question, I can only guess what you are referring to by “it”. The two obvious choices are that you’re asking what either salvation means or what the statement from the Catechism (CCC 1846) that I referred to means. Either one cannot be possible, because an informed, practicing Roman Catholic knows what both salvation and the Gospel are. So once more the object of your question must be something else. Please state exactly what you mean by “it” so that I can answer your question.

Alindawyl

May I interject another way of looking at this point in the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed normally professed at the Sunday Holy Sacrifice of the Mass. “For us men and for our salvation He came down from heaven,…”

I suggest continuing to the explanation: For our sake he was crucified under Pontius Pilate, He suffered death and was buried, and rose again on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures." One of those Scriptures is Romans 5: 12-21 which are referred to in CCC 261; 397; and 402. This Scripture refers to Original Sin.

For the purpose of this thread, we should ponder Romans 5: 19. “For just as through the disobedience of one person the many were made sinners, so through the obedience of one the many will be made righteous.” Considering that Adam was specifically mentioned at the beginning of Romans 5: 12-21, this passage refers to the obedience of Christ unto death which is the reparation for the disobedience of Original Sin.

Likewise “For our salvation” also refers to the reconciliation of humanity with divinity which was shattered by Original Sin.

In CCC 405, we find the necessity of Christ’s grace. This grace is part of the redemption or salvation achieved by Christ’s obedience on the Cross. This is the expiation or atonement for the Original Sin of Adam in whom is the whole human race as one body of one man. (CCC 404, St. Thomas of Aquinas, *DeMalo *4, 1.)
**“CCC 405 **Although it is proper to each individual, original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it; subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death; and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called “concupiscence”. Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle.”
When we are asked "Why did Jesus Come? The first response is Genesis 3:15. CCC 410 refers to the reality of Original Sin in Genesis 3: 1-24.
**“CCC 410 **After his fall, man was not abandoned by God. On the contrary, God calls him and in a mysterious way heralds the coming victory over evil and his restoration from his fall. This passage in Genesis is called the *Protoevangelium *(“first gospel”): the first announcement of the Messiah and Redeemer, of a battle between the serpent and the Woman, and of the final victory of a descendant of hers.”

Footnote 304 is Cf. Genesis 3:9, 15
Obviously, Jesus offers salvation for our personal sins. His mercy is for all, even when we are on a cross.
Luke 23: 33-43. “Amen, I say to you, today you will be with Me in Paradise.”

But first, Jesus had to “open the gates of heaven” a saying from my old neighborhood. 2 Peter 1: 3-11 “For, in this way, entry into the eternal kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ will be richly provided for you.”

Among other reasons, Jesus came to comfort the afflicted and afflict the comfortable. :smiley:

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