[quote=sandusky]Your analogy cannot stand up under scriptural scrutiny.
Is 40:13 asks the rhetorical questions:
13 Who has directed the Spirit of the Lord,
Or as His counselor has informed Him?
The expected answer to both questions is no one.
If God sees in the future what someone will do, the Spirit of the Lord is directed by the one viewed.
That makes no sense. God does not see “into” the future. The future is present to God, just as the “present” is present to us.
[quote=]If God sees in the future what someone will do, the Spirit of the Lord has taken counsel with the one viewed, and the one viewed has informed Him.
Again, that makes no sense. Just because God is all knowing, and therefore knows what each person will choose, does not mean that the person making the choice “informs” God: it means just the opposite. God already knew what the person would do before they did it, so their choosing only confirmed what God already knew, it didn’t give Him knew knowledge.
[quote=]Therefore, the Spirit of the Lord has learned something that it had not known before, and if the Spirit learns, it changes. We are told that God is immutable, IOW, He does not change.
God, who is all knowing, does not learn. He already knows.
[quote=]Moreover, in order for one to believe, one must be the recipient of God’s grace.
How could God see anyone believe, without their first receiving His grace?
God exists outside of time and views all of time at once. He can see those who are in the state of grace and those who are not. He does not see anyone believe before they believe. That would be a contradiction. God may see them as an unbeliever at one point in time; then, after they recieve the grace of faith and correspond to it, he will see them as a believer at another point in time. (Using the ruler example: On the first inch they were an unbeliever, but on the second inch they beleived.)
[quote=]I am assuming that you are referring to 1 Tim 2:3-4 which reads:
3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior,
4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
Your understanding of that verse is that God wills all men to be saved, that is different from what the verse is saying.
The verse says He desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth
It does not say:
God has willed to save all men, and He has willed that they come to a knowledge of the truth, and they will do so, unfailingly.
If, as you say, God has willed, or purposed, to save all men, then all men would be saved, as God’s will/purpose cannot be thwarted.
Nope. There are two levels of God’s Will. There is the antecedent will of God, which “wills all men to be saved” (most Bibles transated it as I quoted it), and the consequent Will of God, which allows some to be damned. The anticedent Will of God is what He “desires” - what he wills -, the consequent will of God, is what God allows.
[quote=]The verse in Timothy expresses God’s desire, not His purpose. He has purposed to save only those He foreknew.
Are you Catholic or Protestant? If you are Protestant I can understand your being confused. If you are Catholic read the Summa of St. Thomas where he discussed the anticedent will of God and the consequent will of God. You should be able to find it by doing a google search.
If you are a Protestant, the only hope of cure for your confusion is to join the Church and submit to its teachings. Aside from that (if you are a Protestant), you are without any hope at all.