If Jesus is God in the flesh, who was he yelling out to while being crucified?

This has always been an issue that has caused me to be confused. If Jesus is God incarnate, yet the Father is also God along with the Spirit, why would Jesus have called out, “My God, My God why have you forsaken me?” Wouldn’t he, in a theological sense have been talking to himself?

Jesus was teaching from the cross. It is the beginning of a psalm

It’s the doctorine of the Trinity. It’s not only found in that one spot, but its all over the New Testament. It states that God is one being with 3 different “persons” constituting that being. It’s beyond our complete understanding, but its what we are taught.

When Christ took on humanity, he didn’t do it as if he were a divine mind control in the body. He became everything we were, including a human will. When Christ said those words he spoke as a man with his human will to his heavenly father.

He was calling-out to the Father.

Because Jesus is the Son, and the Son is not the Father. That’s why he can pray to the Father and send the Holy Spirit.

They are three Persons, and the Persons are not each other. As per the Athanasian Creed:

“That we worship one God in Trinity, and Trinity in Unity; Neither confounding the Persons; nor dividing the Essence. For there is one Person of the Father; another of the Son; and another of the Holy Ghost. But the Godhead of the Father, of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, is all one; the Glory equal, the Majesty coeternal.”

Am I the only one that thinks Jesus was quoting psalm 22? This psalm points to His crucifixion

Jesus was on the cross for approximately 180 minutes hanging vertically from his hands extending from arms which were dislocated from his shoulders and supported by his feet which were nailed into the wood. He only had seven recorded statements which if you put all together would take less than one minute to say, yet all of them were significant.
In one statement he offered mankind forgiveness of our sins and salvation, in another he gave us his mother as our mother.
It is right for us to question what Jesus was telling us as he suffered on the cross. Keep asking and digging for answers and maybe you will discover the truth.

God is Three divine Persons,
Father, Son, Holy Spirit.

Jesus, fully divine and fully human,
was crying out in His human suffering to the Father

**Catechism of the Catholic Church **Index

You might like to scroll down to the heading “Trinity

The question of the OP is not limited to the cross or Psalm 22. It covers his prayer “Father, forgive them”, Gethsemane, the High Priestly Prayer, and pretty much any instance of Jesus addressing his Father directly.

The answer is really simple: Jesus and the Father are different Persons. Therefore it’s perfectly possible and reasonable for Jesus to address the Father without addressing himself, since the Father and the Son are distinct.

Yes, I would agree. Jews of that time would have immediately recognized the psalm and would have been able to complete it. We see the fulfillment of prophesy from stanza 19 which reads:

They parted my garments amongst them; and upon my vesture they cast lots.

This is one of the quick questions on Catholic Answers (here).

No, Psalm 22 was THE prayer Jews used to recite in time of trouble…Jesus is not calling on his Father, he is being “Jewish” by praying the Psalm, as was the custom.

Actually he was calling to to the Father

Are there any other verses in the Bible where Jesus calls out to God but He means the Father?


I concur.

As per servants request above, Could you please also clarify this statement as to what you are saying, I have not seen this posted in such a way by a Catholic before.

Regards Tony

This is the truth. The Father is one person, the Son another just as you and I are separate people. There could be nothing more straight forward. Though I can’t imaging porthos how you accept this conclusion and still call yourself a Catholic.

All Catholics and other trinitarians believe that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are three distinct persons that share one divine nature (aka consubstantial). This was established in the 4th century during the Council of Nicea.

To beleive that Christ was talking to himself would require holding to the Sabellianist heresy of Christ, the Father, and Holy Spirit being different manifestations of the same God in one person. Catholics also explicitly reject adoptionist heresies that believe Christ was born human and later became divine. All three persons of God have existed for all eternity; none were created or existed before the other. These facts were all established during the first 7 councils and are fundamental to Christianity. It is why so many heresies had to be rooted out and the various Christilogical creeds formed.

You likely cannot tell what my avatar is, but it is often call the Scutum Fidei or Shield of the Trinity. The three outer circles contain the three persons of the Trinity and the inner circle is God. The lines between the outer circles say “non est” (is not) where as those from the person of the Trinity to the circle of God say “est” (is). This encompasses orthodox Christian understanding of the nature of God as expressed in the Athanasian Creed.

No, I don’t think you’re the only one.

However, that’s not what the OP asked.

This is what I was going to say although my statement would not have been as elegant as Usige’s statement. :slight_smile:

Jesus is not just like you & I - He is God. The belief that Jesus was just a man like all men is why the LDS are not considered Christian by Catholic Church. To be Christian one must believe in the divine nature of Jesus Christ. I think you have twisted Porthos statement to fit your conclusion of the nature of Jesus.

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