If marriage is presumed valid in any Church why would one want to do it in the Catholic Church?

If there is no difference at the Church looking from the outside in, what difference does it make for a Catholic to do it in the Catholic Church?

I sometimes ask myself if most people think this when they are Catholic but get married outside the Church anyway. It’s valid no matter what right? or at least presumed valid. Even presumed whats the difference?

It’s valid, but you receive none of the graces outside of the Church.:slight_smile:

Is any marriage valid even by a JP, say in the middle of your living room, even if its your second wife? Can you explain a little more about the graces if you don’t mind.

If a Catholic gets married outside the Church without a dispensation, it is not valid.

I believe that it is valid, but not licit. I could be mistaken, and stand corrected, if not.

Are you sure about this? How would anyone ever know if a dispensation was ever issued looking outside in? Is there public records of this? Also whats the difference between a lapsed Catholic and a former Catholic. In other words if you are a former Catholic who has defected from the faith(whatever that means) is it more valid or not?

What does this mean? I’m confused valid but not licit??

Sorry but could you explain what this means? :o Exactly what difference are these “graces” supposed to make?

An excellent resource that explains it better than I can:o


I found the good Father’s answer here


It is not valid, so my post (#2) was incorrect. My apologies.

No, it is invalid.

Can. 1108 §1. Only those marriages are valid which are contracted before the local ordinary, pastor, or a priest or deacon delegated by either of them, who assist, and before two witnesses according to the rules expressed in the following canons and without prejudice to the exceptions mentioned in cann. ⇒ 144, ⇒ 1112, §1, ⇒ 1116, and ⇒ 1127, §§1-2.


I appreciate the citation. I caught it in the post above yours.

Can you tell me how this squares up with Apologist Michelle Arnold answer on this at forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?t=64951

“It is true that, objectively speaking, a person who is a Catholic is objectively bound by Catholic marital law. However, the Church reasonably understands that someone who has formally left the Church because of a defect in that person’s faith or understanding cannot be reasonably expected to follow Catholic marital law. Because marriages among non-Catholics are presumed valid (and sacramental if both parties are baptized), those marriages of former Catholics are also presumed to be valid/sacramental if the conditions for a valid/sacramental marriage among non-Catholics have otherwise been met. Lapsed Catholics, on the other hand, have not left the Church and so are expected to follow the ecclesial disciplines necessary to assure the validity/sacramentality of their marriages.”

It seems to be different from what Fr. Vincent Serpa says as it being invalid

I was under the assumption that all marriages where valid because the Church would have to investigate the issue otherwise until saying yes or no. So therefore its valid until proven otherwise?

Yes, i just answered your other post.

This AAA question was from 2005. The Vatican made a change this year. Formal defection no longer releases a person from contracting marriage in the Catholic form.

Marriage enjoys the “favor of the law”. That is the expression used in canon law.

Can. 1060 Marriage possesses the favor of law; therefore, in a case of doubt, the validity of a marriage must be upheld until the contrary is proven.

There is no doubt regarding a marriage contracted outside the Catholic form without dispensation. It is invalid.

Same would go for a ‘remarriage’ attempt without a decree of nullity while the divorced spouse is still alive.

Such a marriage could be valid IF neither the bride nor the groom were Catholic and IF the man had received a decree of nullity for his first marriage.

But usually it’s not. :slight_smile:

Thank you for the answer on the other thread, I had no idea that cannon law was changed this year. All this time, I’ve been getting conflicting opinions and results on this. Don’t you think they should remove that from the AAA if it’s invalid information.

Also if the rules on cannon were changed are the people who thought there marriage was valid before the change now considered invalid again? Talk about confusion.

=dfp42;6775096]if there is no difference at the church looking from the outside in, what difference does it make for a catholic to do it in the catholic church?

I sometimes ask myself if most people think this when they are catholic but get married outside the church anyway. It’s valid no matter what right? Or at least presumed valid. Even presumed whats the difference?

sacramental grace…only in the cc is marriage actually a sacrament!:d

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