If the Catholic church gave the world the Bible in 397 AD, then why did so many versions of the canon continue to circulate afterwards?

Also too, if the Catholic church by her own inherant God given authority gave the world the Bible, then why did she not get it right the first time? Why did the Catholic church wait until the Council of Trent in 1546 AD to officially add the Apocrypha to the Canon?

You might want to check your facts. The Canon decreed in 397 at the Council of Carthage is identical, book-for-book, with the Canon decreed in 1546 at the Council of Trent. We didn’t wait until Trent to add the so-called “Apocrypha”. They were there all along. Could you provide a source that says otherwise?

The Church did get it right the first time.

In fact, J.N.D. Kelly, an Anglican, stated:

It should be observed that the Old Testament thus admitted as authoritative in the Church… always included, though with varying degrees of recognition, the so-called Apocrypha or deuterocanonical books.

Kelly, J. N. D… Early Christian Doctrines. Harper Collins. pp. 53–54

You need to read history,a good book on biblical scholarship particularly one on the Texts and get your facts straight.

In 1546, the Council of Trent re-iterated the canonicity of the Deutero-canonical books of the OT, because the Protestants had deleted them from their bibles after they had been in the bible since the beginning.

You need to get you history straight.

Fairly certain the “facts” in the original post were taken from a random anti-catholic website with no backup to claims.

When did the Orthodox add their extra books to the canon? Did they accept other books after the undivided church council of Carthage name the canon and “override” the Carthage decision and include additonal books that are not found in the Catholic canon formalized by Trent?

The canon you see to day is the same canon that was established in 397 at the Council of Carthage, the Council of Trent in 1546 AD infallible proclaimed the canon of the Bible. The canon of the Bible was never really an issue until after the Reformation where the reformers removed the Deuterocanonical books. This is why the CC infallible proclaimed the canon of the Bible. This LINK will explain it

If the Catholic church gave the world the Bible in 397 AD, then why did so many versions of the canon continue to circulate afterwards?

Because there wasn’t a direct challenge to the authenticity or inspiration of Scripture up until that time. The Apocrapha *was already *in the Canon of Scripture. What the Church did at the Council of Trent was to defend what it already had accepted as the biblical canon of books, and that included the books that the protestant movement had rejected.

What the heck are you talking about? What noneducated Bible historian are you listening to? It has never changed. The prostants changed it.

Ok, point well taken. What about all of the different versions of the original Canon though, why more than one?

I wouldn’t be so quick to pin it all on the Protestants though. The Hebraic Jews never accepted the apocrypha as inspired still to this day and when St. Jerome was formulating the Latin Vulgate, he was reluctant to include those books in the same nature as the others.

Disregard the Apocryphal books—With your church, claiming to have so-called God-given authority, why then, do they still rely on the books of Matthew - Revelations sanctioned by the Catholic Church?

T.hey were sanctioned by the Early Church, not just the Catholic church but also the Eastern Orthodox, so I don’t understand your point.

Anglican right? therefore not orthodox, so what is also you’re point? Here’s fact-- Apocryphal books existed before Trent-- it remained unquestioned until the reformation, where the Church had to reaffirm the books as canonical. Not added.

History shows us that the apocrypha has always been in question as being as authoritative as the other books of Scripture. Yes, we as Anglicans do read from them as they are part of the lectionary but we do not establish doctrine from them. These books were even under scrutiny from St. Jerome as he compiled the Latin Vulgate as was obvious from his hesitation to recommend them to the Church as fully inspired as the others. Hebraic Jews to this day do not recognize them as inspired.

It is always worth pointing out that the 73 books are the minimum books to be considered canonical. Rome knows that other apostolic Churches have even more.

And your point? The Church did accept them. That’s all that matters.

Hebraic Jews stopped including them in their Bible after the second century A.D. because they were the only books not written in Hebrew. And this is why St. Jerome questioned them, but although St. Jerome questioned them, he did translate them knowing they would not be taken out of the Bible. And the Catholic Church guided by the Holy Spirit decides what is canon in the Bible. And the Catholic Church confirmed that they are canon. Does that help answer your question?

I don’t believe that to be exactly accurate. The apocrypha was translated into Latin along with the other books prior to St. Jerome’s decision to keep it separate. He wasn’t the first to translate it from Greek so this didn’t have any bearing upon his decision to present as such to the Church.

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