Hello everyone…I will like some feedback and thoughts on a logical result I figured out about an Ignatius statement…since I’m learning Logic.
I was comtemplating Ignatius’ early writing of, "“Where the Bishop appears, there let the people be, just as where Jesus Christ is,** there is the Catholic Church**.” St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Smyrneans 8, 107 A.D…
Let A = If where Jesus Christ is, then there is the Catholic Church
The contrapositive of A is A’
Let A’ = If there is not the Catholic Church, then ** no where Jesus Christ is**
We know from Logic that a statement A and its contrapositive A’ are “logically equivalent.” That is a technical way of saying that they mean the same. They will either both be true or both be false.
If we as catholics believe that St. Ignatius is making a TRUE statement, i.e. A is TRUE…then A’ is TRUE…therefore, we must conclude that for all non-catholic churches, Jesus Christ is not there. Or if Jesus is really in a non-catholic church…then that non-catholic church is really Catholic.
This sounds like a “harsh statement”…I am in no way wanting offend non-catholics. But is it a logical conclusion?? Have a made an error somewhere?
But maybe the next questions is…what did Ignatius mean by, “where Jesus is”??? Or does it matter in what form he is in?? Also, what did he mean by, “Catholic Church”…is it visible or invisible or both??
Is this Ignatius statement considered an “infallible teaching one”…or was this his personal opinion??:shrug: Am I taking his statement out of context??
You answers and feedback is greatly appreciated:)
Peace be with you.