Immaculate Conception: Is it like baptism?

I was wondering if the Immaculate Conception is like Mary being baptised at conception?

I mean, does baptism give us the same grace that Mary recieved at conception?

Our baptism lacks some of the graces of the IC, for we still suffer from Concupiscence (or the tendency to sin).

No, the immaculate conception means Mary was conceived without original sin, the same state that Adam and Eve were created. The only “like being Baptized” I can equate would be John the Baptist, who received the Holy Spirit inside his mothers womb. Still not at conception, but prior to his birth.
Mary did not have original sin, ever, however, as with Adam and Eve, was capable of committing sin, she chose obedience and not sin.

Baptism cleanses us from Original Sin.

The Immaculate Conception means Mary never had it to begin with.

Actually, I have heard some pious tradition (not doctrine) which says that St. Joseph and St. John the Baptist were both cleansed from Original Sin while within the womb. This would be more akin to a “Baptism” as they had Original Sin, but were cleansed of it before they were born. Mary is different because she never had it to begin with.

I believe that the Blessed Theotokos received an abundance of grace at her conception, but of the same kind of grace that we receive at baptism. She was able to conquer her desires and her passions with this grace. I do not believe concupiscence was eliminated as this is attached to her nature as a human being. Original justice and holiness was a gift bestowed upon man apart from his actual human nature, though they do not lack a connection.

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius:cool:

The Immaculate Conception means that Mary was conceived with out sin of any kind. It is due to sin (original sin that we have concupiscence) Mary, without original sin, had the preternatural gifts from the first moment of her conception. With this, she had an abundance of grace that is beyond our measure, as she was addressed by the angel (never to anyone else) as,** Full of Grace>** This was never said of any other human., only her. Thus, no baptism, nothing like baptism, Her grace surpassed all other humans with the exception of Jesus, her son, the God-Man. She had to be totally pure, as Jesus took his incarnation from her,
It is because of the preternatural givts that she had such an awesome relationship with her son as they were totally in sinc with one another. This is also why the crucifixion was also more painful to her as a mother than for any other mother who looses a child. She knew of his total innocence and her loss was much greater because of this. I gould go on and on and on. But I think you get the picture.
Deacon Ed B

:thumbsup:

From what I can see, the Catholic Church hasn’t specifically stated whether or not the Blessed Theotokos had concupiscence. I am under the opinion that she was subject to this–this is no sin or impurity–but as a mark upon her as a daughter of Eve. Unlke Eve; however, she used the gift of grace to overcome. In other words, concupiscence had no power over her.

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius:cool:

DISCLAIMER: The views and opinions expressed in these forums do not necessarily reflect those of Catholic Answers. For official apologetics resources please visit www.catholic.com.