In the Greek, what is the number of 'your' in the verse: 'Behold your Mother'?


**Somewhere I remember hearing that it is plural, not singular.

Any help appreciated.


If you’re referring to John 19:27 here it is:

27 εἶτα λέγει τῷ μαθητῇ: ἴδε ἡ μήτηρ σου. καὶ ἀπ’ ἐκείνης τῆς ὥρας ἔλαβεν ὁ μαθητὴς αὐτὴν εἰς τὰ

27 Deinde dicit discipulo: Ecce mater tua. Et ex illa hora accepit eam discipulus in sua.

Using archaic English the translation from both the Greek and Latin is “Behold thy mother.”
In Spanish: “He ahí tu madre.”

The word in question is σου.

From another source:

you — when using the second-person to an individual in Greek a choice must be made between using the singular or plural form of the verb. The choice made depends upon the relationship between the speaker and the person spoken to (see: T–V distinction).

† The singular form is familiar and informal, used with family, friends, children and younger people: γεια σου (geia sou, “hello”), τι κάνεις; (ti káneis?, “how are you?”).
‡ The plural is formal and polite, and used with strangers and to give respect: γεια σας (geia sas, “hello”), τι κάνετε; (ti kánete?, “how are you?”). 


The Church it is that extends the singular “your” to the rest of us to include every member of the Church as not only children of God by adoption, but also children of Mary but completion. Every child needs two parents, in this case Jesus having a human Mother but being also God, has God as Father as well. We too need a Mother as well as a Father, so when Jesus in speaking called us His children by adoption, there needed to be a second parent. The parent was chosen for us at her Immaculate Conception and had it consummation and completion upon the Cross when He said “…behold your mother…” etc. To me it is simple logic but it does have deep spiritual meaning for us all.



It is indeed singular.

From another source:

This reference is for modern Greek, not Ancient Greek, and does not work the same way. In Ancient (and Biblical) Greek, number depends upon the coherence or generality of the subject, rather than upon formality.


Given that the church is singular in Greek, that is linguistically quite defensible.


Quite true. Ancient and Koine Greek used pronouns to indicate number, but not any degrees of familiarity, unlike Modern Greek.


I was hoping someone would finally point that principle out. Thanks.


Hello Mystophilus.

I wasn’t talking linguistics. I could ask my daughter. She’s the one with the Masters in Theology, not me and she speaks Greek. I’m a Latin lagger in that I’m home schooled and lagging behind everyone else in the family. I’m not multilingual yet, but I’m trying. I give me an “E” for effort after I’m done my lessons. :yup: Prblem with homeschool is I never graduate. :crying:



Thanks, all!

I knew I had heard somewhere that one of the pronouns in John 19:27 was plural.

"John 19:26 And Jesus, seeing his mother there, and the disciple, too, whom he loved, standing by, said to his mother, Woman, this is thy son. 27 Then he said to the disciple, This is thy mother. And from that hour the disciple took her into his own keeping. "

This week, by chance, I was listening to an old “Journey Home” show (not sure who guest was) and the guest said that the “plural pronoun” I had thought I heard discussed was in the next sentence. The guest said ‘‘he took her into their home’’, but their probably refers to John & Mary’s.

Thanks again!

closed #10

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