I have recently been reading in the early Church Fathers and am finding a quite consistent near revulsion to “fancy” food (or “delicacies”/“deliciae”). It seems that very many of them thought that Christians should abstain from/avoid them altogether.
So, then, why would they think this? Is it sinful to eat “fancy food”, as long as you’re not doing it wastefully or absolutely having to have it to be content?
It doesn’t seem that the Church is these days too concerned with it, but it even seems that Aquinas considered eating fancily as a form of gluttony.
Indeed, could not this seemingly universal condemnation of eating “fancy” cuisine be considered some manifestation of a “sensus fidei/fidelium” and thus sent by the Holy Spirit? Either particularly for that time and/or for today, though I suppose today, that notion seems to have faded away (though perhaps either of these could be blamed on some cultural influence either outside of or within the Church)? Is there any reason why Christians in early times would’ve been forbidden (were they technically “forbidden” by decree of the Church?) or at least why they turned away from delicacies? Was it, even then, perhaps a too-strict interpretation of gluttony/lack of moderation or something like that? would Christians, because of this “sense” (whether “fidei” or not) throughout the Church, be required not to eat fancy food, even if they could well afford it?
I do recall reading somewhere where it was believed that the early Church was indeed “too strict” when it came to some matters and that folks did eventually “loosen up” on them…