Correct me if I am wrong, as I understand it the Church of Rome is supernaturally protected from error (infallibility) when teaching anything having to do with either faith or morals. Does the belief it the indissolubility of marriage fall under this? In other words, if it were actually true that a valid marriage could end by a ‘church divorce’ (rather then by death), the Church of Rome would be wrong on this point because it is taught that a valid marriage is indissoluble, but my question is if Rome was wrong about this would this prove that the Church of Rome is not infallible? If ‘No’, then why?
Please don’t mis-assume my motives for asking this. I want to believe fully in all the dogma’s of the Church. I am Roman Catholic right now, but I used to be Eastern Orthodox for 25 years. The Eastern Orthodox (as long as there are grounds for divorce, such as adultery) do grant a ‘Church Divorce’ to what they will teach was indeed a valid marriage. Then after the Church Divorce there is usually given the blessing to marry again. And from what I have read, this way of doing things in the East is a custom that goes back even before the 1st Ecumenical Council, which if so means that it is probably OLDER then the way Rome does these things. Now I admit that older does not prove that it is right. But you can see why I’m tempted to believe that the Eastern Orthodox are maybe right on this, and since both views seem to be mutually exclusive, Rome would have to be wrong if the East is right about this.
The Primary thing I want to focus on about this is the dogma of infallibility. I wish to be counted as a believer in this dogma of infallibility, so if I were to believe that Rome is wrong on the issue of the indissolubility of marriage (and the East is right) could I still be counted as a believer in the dogma of infallibility? Is this an issue that MUST fall under the category of morals and thus Rome has to be correct on this?