Anyone here studying Greek? A non-Trinitarian claims that in the Greek of John 20:28, the article “the” is placed before “God,” meaning that Thomas is referring to the Father and not Jesus Christ. I see that he may be correct, as in the case of John 1:1c (and the Word was God) John didn’t place the article “ho” (the) before (theos) “God” to emphasize the point that the Word was God but not the Father. If I recall that’s how John differentiates the Father from the Word. “Ho theos” (the God) for the Father, and just “theos” (God) for the Word. In John 20:28 it is “ho theos” which could only mean Thomas is admitting Jesus is the Father.
Here’s the Greek.
John 20:28 apekrithē Thōmas kai eipen autō HO kyrios mou kai ho theos mou
John 1:1 EN ARCHĒ ēn ho logos kai ho logos ēn pros ton theon kai theos ēn ho logos