I read lilith was "stolen" from the mesopotamyan mythology by the Jews. So i would like to ask is Lilith biblical. Below is a "controversial" bible verse about Lilith.
Quoting from Isaiah 34 (NAB):
(12) Her nobles shall be no more, nor shall kings be proclaimed there; all her princes are gone. (13) Her castles shall be overgrown with thorns, her fortresses with thistles and briers. She shall become an abode for jackals and a haunt for ostriches. (14) Wildcats shall meet with desert beasts, satyrs shall call to one another; There shall the Lilith repose, and find for herself a place to rest. (15) There the hoot owl shall nest and lay eggs, hatch them out and gather them in her shadow; There shall the kites assemble, none shall be missing its mate. (16) Look in the book of the LORD and read: No one of these shall be lacking, For the mouth of the LORD has ordered it, and His spirit shall gather them there. (17) It is He who casts the lot for them, and with His hands He marks off their shares of her; They shall possess her forever, and dwell there from generation to generation.
The early 5th-century Vulgate translated the same word as Lamia.
et occurrent daemonia onocentauris et pilosus clamabit alter ad alterum ibi cubavit lamia et invenit sibi requiem
—Isaiah (Isaias Propheta) 34.14, Vulgate
The translation is: "And demons shall meet with monsters, and one hairy one shall cry out to another; there the lamia has lain down and found rest for herself...".
In ancient Greek mythology, Lamia was a beautiful queen of Libya who became a child-eating daemon. Is or was the 5th century Vulgate inffallible? Did the writers of 5th century Vulgate stole Lamia from Greek mythology?
Also Lilith appeared in the Talmud.