Is Muhammad in the Bible?


#1

I have encountered a Muslim who claims he is. He used John 16:12 to prove his point: “I have much more to say to you, more than you can now bear. But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. He will glorify me because it is from me that he will receive what he will make known to you. All that belongs to the Father is mine. That is why I said the Spirit will receive from me what he will make known to you.”

I always thought this referred to Pentecost. Does this really mean Muhammad?


#2

No, it doesn’t.


#3

It refers to the Holy Spirit, you are correct that it refers to Pentecost. Somehow Muslims argue that Jesus wasn’t God, but the Spirit of Truth (which as the phrase says, is a spirit) can take flesh? Which is it then?


#4

There is zero evidence attested to by witnesses that any entity, human or spirit, ever spoke to Muhammad. As it is with Mormonism, it is entirely founded on the unverifiable claims of one man.

I would imagine that the “spirit of truth” is claimed to have been Gabriel. Our Lord used what is termed in the Greek “Paraclete” (Advocate) which means one standing by your side.

But, consider: the antichrist is defined in 1 John 4:2-3

(Knox) This is the test by which God’s Spirit is to be recognized; every spirit
which acknowledges Jesus Christ as having come to us in human flesh has
God for its author; 3 and no spirit which
would disunite Jesus[1] comes from God. This is the power of Antichrist,
whose coming you have been told to expect; now you must know that he is
here in the world already.

(D-R) "By this is the spirit of God known. Every spirit which confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh, is of God: 3 And
every spirit that dissolveth Jesus, is not of God: and this is
Antichrist, of whom you have heard that he cometh, and he is now already
in the world.

To “disunite” or to “dissolve” means to separate Jesus from the Father, or to diminish His Divine nature. Such a claim is a warning that the antichrist speaks.


#5

Yes, it is known that there are some Muslims who make that claim, but whether it’s just scattered individuals or a particular sect of Islam, I have no idea. Obviously Christians disagree! But then Muslims don’t claim to be Christians. It’s a different religion.


#6

It’s my understanding that Islam does not believe that Jesus was crucified, so not sure why a Muslim would even look to the Gospel to prove Muhammad was pointed to?


#8

Yes. Muslims believe that this refers to Muhammad, not the Holy Spirit. There was a very long thread about this a year or two ago. It might still be available.

The problem is neither side can prove to the other side that they are right. Each side thinks their answer is obvious. It’s a waste of time to debate this with a Muslim. And if you think this refers to Muhammad, you’re not a Christian–you’re a Muslim.


#9

a warning about the religion may be in the bible

Galatians 1:8
But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach a gospel to you besides that which we have preached to you, let him be anathema.

wasn’t the religion of peace delivered by an angel?
the religion of peace is a different gospel.


#10

If this were the case, then Muhammad would have had to be in the same generation as the apostles. When Jesus says That is why I said the Spirit will receive from me what he will make known to you, He is very clearly speaking directly to the apostles. Unless Muslims claim that Muhammad came upon them at Pentecost, their theory does not stand.


#11

Or if he meant ‘you, my followers and those to come’.


#12

Some posters on CAF seem not to know that followers of Islam believe that Jesus was sent by God, is a prophet, was born of the Virgin Mary, is the Messiah and will come again to judge the living and the dead.


#13

Yes, but only a prophet and no more than that, I think. An Iraqi friend once told me that they repudiate belief in the Trinity as “polytheism,” but it is not clear to me whether he meant all Muslims or only some Muslims.


#14

That same argument was used in relation to the false prophet Mani. He rode into town proclaiming that he was the Advocate of the Pentecost. the bishop asked him to explain if this were true then why were the apostles still not waiting in the upper room.
When he wasn’t able to answer him, the bishop gave him safe passage out of that city because the people wanted to stone him.


#15

The would be all Muslims I think. They believe Jesus to be the prophet second in importance to Mohammed. He too is ‘no more than that’.


#16

Muhammad was born after the Bible was compiled; not sure how he could be referenced in it.


#17

Although Christians believe Christ was referenced in the OT.


#18

And born/ lived during the NT, so not the same situation


#19

Well, referenced in a written work before His birth, so much the same situation.


#20

The New Testament books were composed before the end of the 1st Century. 500 years before Muhammad was born.


#21

And Isaiah at least 400 years before the birth of Christ, I understand.


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