I have often heard it said, by both Catholic and Protestant apologists, that new revelation ceased with the death of the last apostle. However, both from things I’ve read in the CCC and in the Bible itself, it seems that revelation may have ended before that. The letter of Jude speaks of the faith which was “once for all delivered to the saints.” This makes it sound as though they had already received the fullness of divine revelation at this time. The Catechism also says that there will be no new revelation after Jesus, though I’m not quite sure what that means. Did revelation cease at Jesus’ assumption? Or was it not until St. John’s vision of Jesus in the book of Revelation?
65 “In many and various ways God spoke of old to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son.” Christ, the Son of God made man, is the Father’s one, perfect and unsurpassable Word. In him he has said everything; there will be no other word than this one. St. John of the Cross, among others, commented strikingly on Hebrews 1:1-2:
In giving us his Son, his only Word (for he possesses no other), he spoke everything to us at once in this sole Word - and he has no more to say. . . because what he spoke before to the prophets in parts, he has now spoken all at once by giving us the All Who is His Son. Any person questioning God or desiring some vision or revelation would be guilty not only of foolish behavior but also of offending him, by not fixing his eyes entirely upon Christ and by living with the desire for some other novelty.
73 God has revealed himself fully by sending his own Son, in whom he has established his covenant for ever. The Son is his Father’s definitive Word; so there will be no further Revelation after him.
I’m really not sure what to make of this. Did Revelation cease before the New Testament was even written? Is the New Testament simply a record of things already revealed, or can it properly be considered new revelation? Is the idea that revelation ended with the death of the last apostle actually a Protestant idea, or does the Catholic Church teach this somewhere? I’m curious because I see implications for this in the debate over sola scriptura. I would appreciate whatever help you guys could give me on this. Of course, citations are always appreciated.