Thanks for all the replies! This has been such a random pondering today, and I’m very glad to see peoples thoughts on it.
I have read elsewhere on the forums that plain water added to holy water becomes holy water as long as there is less plain water added than there is holy water (though not the desired method to make more, blessing by a priest is preferred).
If the Sea of Galilee was ever holy water, and the above is true of plain water that is added to holy water, I would assume that way less water was added at any individual given time from rain, but a constant flow from the Jordan and back out to the Jordan may have washed it’s holiness away.
In my digging around today, I also saw that Lourdes is considered “non-liturgical” holy water, along with water from holy wells and from places associated with saintly apparitions. If these sources don’t loose their status as holy water, I would think that the Sea of Galilee might possibly retain it’s status as well, being a water source touched by Jesus himself several times.
I guess the question is, does being touched by Jesus during miracle working make it holy water, or would it specifically have to have been intended to be holy water?
A woman was healed when she touched “the fringe of His garments”, not because Jesus had intended for his clothes to heal all who touched them, but because of her faith that if she could just touch the fringe of them, she would be healed.
If we had faith that the waters touched by Jesus himself was holy water just the same as the water blessed by priests today, would that make it so?
Just to be clear, this is not a major theological issue or anything, but only random curiosity as to what people think on the matter