Is there a defense of 400 years of Silence

I have been learning more about scripture and one strange thing that has been very common among Protestant websites and biblical studies is the belief in an intertestamental period.

I haven’t been able to find a defense of this claim. All of the sites that I look up more about this claim simply pronounce it as fact. It would seem fairly strange for the 400 years leading up to the incarnation, God goes silent.

My main problem with this claim is Jesus’s own words from Matthew 11:23:

13*For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John;

If Jesus said the prophecies continued then what really is the 400 years a silence?

We really have no way of knowing if there was a period of silence or not. The OT in the Bible is a collection of the inspired writings about Pre-Christ Judaism. We have no reason to believe that it is an exhaustive account of the Prophets, nor do we have reason to believe that it isn’t. Put simply, we just can’t know this side of eternity.

Also, just a small note to help you get better answers; when you’re quoting scripture, please give it context. A single verse can be incredibly misleading when it loses touch with its surround passages.

Isn’t that the timeframe in which the apochrypha stories took place. Not silence , just seemingly less significant events

It is an invention, not a teaching of the Church.

So if it wasn’t written down, there must have been silence?

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