[quote=Wormwood]No. There is none.
Mwahahaha sorry to have to trick you again, but my questions are pretty boring so I have to trick people into reading them.
Having said that…
Ok can someone ( hopefully someone with knowledge of the original texts) please explain the seeming contradiction between Genesis 10: 31-32 which states that the sons of shem divided into the various nations according to their language, families, and land. Then In genesis 11:1 the whole of the earth spoke the same language. So, how does that not contradict itself? The reason I ask is because it seems like an instance where two different words in the original texts were translated into language, but only one is correct. Can anyone tell me if this is true? Did the original hebrew or even greek use two different words in this example, or were both instances translated from the same word? Thank you ahead of time for any and all responses.
On the assumption that the same person wrote both passages: 11.1 is speaking proleptically - that is, by anticipation, describing a situation in which there is one language, and anticipating the end of the story, which is, that they will be divided into many (which would agree with 11. 9 & 10.31)
In 10.31, “tongues”, translates lashon
11.1, 6,7,9 use the word saphah - “lip”, which in the AV/KJV is translated as “language”
“speech” in AV/KJV 11.1 translates “dabar” (literally, “word”)
So, different words are used in 10.31 & 11.1 to describe the linguistic situation.
Whether 10.31, 10.32, & 11.1 all come from the same author is another matter: stylistically, 10.20 & 10.31 belong together, but 10.32 may originally have come from a different set of traditions from 10.31. There are hints in chapter 10 that more than set of traditions has been drawn upon - compare the listings of the sons of Shem & of Ham, for example.
But none of this affects the theological or doctrinal position of the Bible ##