Is this heresy?


#1

I read this quote from a Protestant on another message board:

Jesus’ flesh body did have the stain of Adam. Heb.4:15 " For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin."

Is this a heresy that the Church has dealt with? If so which one? What does she mean by “Jesus’ flesh body?” Sounds like she is trying to seperate Jesus into two persons a God and a man. Somebody help me out here.


#2

Looks like you’re doin’ pretty good all by yourself!


#3

I think that would be Nestorianism, which separates His humanity and Divinity. It was dealt with primarily by the Council of Ephesus and St. Cyril of Alexandria.


#4

Thanks.

But I can always use all the help I can get.


#5

To claim that this verse shows that Jesus had the stain of Original Sin (“the staing of Adam” is preposterous. :dts: This verse is one of the tests which shows Jesus did not have the stain of Original Sin, that he was sinless. No one who has the stain of Original Sin can remain free of actual sin.


#6

In Old Testament times, only a pure spotless lamb could be used as a sacrifice to cover sins. Likewise, Jesus also had to be pure and spotless, otherwise His sacrifice would have meant nothing.

To imply that Jesus had sin’s original stain is not only heresy, it is impossible. Light and darkness cannot co-exist in the same place.

I could delve further into this, but it would mean writing a theological treatise.

CSJ


#7

Thanks to everybody.


#8

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