The title is just an example, not really sure how that book could (haven’t read it in years).
I have heard of cooperation with sin before, and I have had the thought that if anyone has any influence - especially far-reaching influence - than they will more than likely be “part” of someone’s sin, somewhere, at some point. But then again, the Bible is (mis)used by some people to sin through violence, and obviously Jesus isn’t guilty of a sin. How does this kind of thing work? Does the author/influential figure’s intentions matter the most?
Honestly I’m just curious about this as cooperation with evil seems to be the one area that is genuinely confusing to me regardless of how much I try to understand it.